# Poker probability

High highet singleton in both hands is an ace so the second highest singleton is considered. Flush excluding royal flush and straight flush. Thus the probability you will pair up is It also also be noted these kinds of fake video poker machines are not confined to New York. Computer poker player Online poker Poker tools.

## Your Answer

I get asked a lot whether the two unused cards in a player's hand are used to break a tie. The answer is a firm NO. The two unused cards do not matter. If a new player arrives at the table he should either wait for the big blind position or put up an amount equal to the big blind, amounting to a call of the big blind. If a bet is made after another player runs out of money, then a separate pot is created. The player that ran out of money is not eligible to win the second pot.

If more than one player runs out of money then multiple separate pots can be created. In formal games players may not bet with cash or buy chips with cash in the middle of a hand. There are numerous rules of etiquette, which I won't get into. There house may set the betting rules. There are three main types. A "structured" game features raises of specified amounts. There is usually a limit to the number of raises a player may make, typically three.

A "pot limit" game has structured minimum raises but the maximum raise may be anything up to the amount in the pot at the time the raise is made. A "no limit" game also has structured minimum raises but there is no maximum raise. J , 6 Player 2: Both have an ace high flush, so the second highest card is considered. Player 1's jack beats player 2's 7.

The only way to have a flush tie is if the flush is entirely on the board and no hole cards are higher than the lowest card on the board in the same suit.

Both have a pair of jacks so the singletons are considered. High highet singleton in both hands is an ace so the second highest singleton is considered. Player 1's second highest singleton is a 7, compared to player 2's A 10 beats a 7 so player 2 wins. Q , J Player 2: Both have a two pair of aces and queens, with a king singleton.

Only the top five cards matter. The jacks and deuce are irrelevant. One of the most important aspects of Texas Hold'em is the value of each two-card hand before the flop.

The decision of how to play your first two cards is something you face every hand, and the value of your first two cards is highly correlated to your probability of winning. The following table shows my power rating for each initial 2-card hand in a player game. The numbers are on a 0 to 40 scale. I am trying to figure out a formula to figure out the probability of getting a flush on the flop, by the turn and by the river texas holdem crossed by whether my hole cards are suited or not.

I should have paid more attention in school! Thanks for the kind words but I'm not that smart. I'm still upset that they refused to tell me how well I did do. On January 13 Jeopardy tryouts are coming to Vegas, for which I have an appointment, and am sure I'll blow that too.

Anyway, to answer your question here you go: With suited hole cards:. Anyway if the pocket cards in Holdem are AA and the flop cards are KQ9, what is the probability of completing to a full house? You could complete the full house with an ace and a K, Q, or 9. There are 2 aces left and 3 each of K,Q, an 9. The only other way would be a K, Q, or 9 pair.

My question is this: Any stats you may have at the ready would be wonderful and forever appreciated! Thanks again and keep up enlightening the masses! Thanks for the kind words. However that is a big if.

So the probability of getting pocket aces and then losing is 0. I tend to agree with your strategy of calling, which will keep more players in the hand, and increase your chance of losing. So you have four to a flush with two on the board after the flop.

What if there are only 2 or 3 or x spades larger than my largest hole card? Thanks for your help and the great site. The following table shows the probability for 1 to 8 higher ranks and 2 to 10 players, including yourself. In the case of your example of 4 higher ranks and 9 total players, the probability is The way I calculated these probabilities assumed independence between hands, which is not a correct assumption, but the results should be a close estimate.

Asking this for my own personal knowledge. I was dealt pocket aces. I got the royal flush on the river. I was wondering what the odds are of making the royal flush on the river with aces to start? This would be the two suits in your pocket aces and the 46 possibilities for the extra card.

If the flop comes up three of the same suit and I do not have a suit that matches the flop, and there are ten players left at the table, what is the probability of someone having a flush? So the probability of at least one player having a flush is This is just a quick estimate. If I did a random simulation I think the probability would be just a little bit higher, because of the dependence between hands.

Wizard, I have been recently trying to calculate the probability of getting a flush in Texas Hold 'Em if dealt two suited hole cards? My answer keeps on coming out to be 5. Add this all up and you get 0. That is, five cards on the board where no pair exists, no flush is possible and no straight is possible.

Combin 4,2 is the number of ways to choose two suits out of four for the suits represented twice. Combin 5,2 for the number of ways to choose two ranks out of five for the first suit of two cards. Combin 5,2 is the number of ways to choose two ranks out of five for that suit of two cards. The number of these combinations in which no three ranks are within a span of 5 is There is no easy formula for this one.

I had to cycle through every combination. They have a Bad Beat Jackpot, which is now quads or better being beat. Both players have to play both hole cards, and there must be four players dealt cards. My question is, what is the probability of any hand being a bad beat hand, assuming all players stay until the end? My new Bad Beat Jackpot section shows the probability of this kind of bad beat in a player game to be 0.

In this case, the player is stuck with bad odds on the Ante and Blind. However, his odds are favorable on the Play. That value would be even less with a smaller raise. I have a simple question about the odds of this occurring. ESPN and others quoted it as 1 in approximately 2. It appears to me that they simply took the published odds of quads occurring, and multiplied them by the odds of a royal flush occurring.

Is this the correct method of calculation? I disagree with the 1 in 2. As you said, they seemed to calculate the probabilities independently for each player, for just the case where both players use both hole cards, and multiplied.

Using this method I get a probability of 0. Maybe the one in 2. They also evidently forgot to multiply the probability by 2, for reasons I explain later. One player has two to a royal flush, the other has two aces, and the board contains the other two aces, the other two cards to the royal, and any other card. In most poker rooms, to qualify for a bad-beat jackpot, both winning and losing player must make use of both hole cards.

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